Does the Weighting of Assets in a Multi-Asset Pool Directly Correlate to the Share of Impermanent Loss Attributed to Each Asset?

No, the weighting does not directly correlate to the share of impermanent loss in a simple way. The impermanent loss is a function of the relative price changes of all assets in the pool.

A higher-weighted asset will have a greater influence on the pool's overall value. However, the magnitude of IL is driven by the divergence of the lower-weighted, more volatile assets against the more stable, higher-weighted assets.

A small, volatile asset can be the primary driver of IL for the entire pool, even with a low weighting.

How Does a Weighted AMM (E.g. Balancer) Manage Impermanent Loss for Multi-Asset Pools?
What Are the Trade-Offs between Earning High Trading Fees in a Volatile Pool versus Minimizing Impermanent Loss in a Stable Pool?
What Is the Difference between TWAP and Volume-Weighted Average Price (VWAP)?
What Is the Risk-Weighting of Assets in a Banking Context?
What Is the Methodology for Weighting Different Exchanges in a Composite Index?
How Does a Low-Volume Period Affect the Calculation of TWAP versus VWAP?
How Can a Flash Crash Be Attributed to a Sudden Lack of Market Depth?
What Is a “Volume-Weighted Time-Weighted Average Price” (VWTWAP) and Its Advantage?

Glossar